Title: The Reliability of the Bible (Proof-Positive Provided?) Source:
YT URL Source:https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=qAH_-Du2428 Published:Jun 5, 2019 Author:GENESIS APOLOGETICS Post Date:2019-06-10 11:25:47 by Liberator Keywords:BIBLE, GOD Views:7433 Comments:25
Is the Bible reliable?
Does it include prophecies about Jesus Christ that have come true? Has it been reliably copied over the centuries?
Is the Bible inerrant?
The discovery of the Dead Sea Scrolls help answer these questions!
Poster Comment:
Sequential, repeated evidence is provided for over two millennia of the very same prophecies and information.
Seems the premise is that the prophecies were fulfilled via the tenants of Christian theology. That would, to an extent, make them self-fulfilling prophecies.
I.e. if Isaiah had not written about a man being whipped four our iniquities, would the belief that the whipping Jesus received was because of our iniquities be part of Christian theology today?
Seems the premise is that the prophecies were fulfilled via the tenants of Christian theology. That would, to an extent, make them self-fulfilling prophecies.
A "premise" is a theory; This video demonstrated a lineage and repeatable documentation and proof of fulfilled prophecy. Proof simply does not get any more valid and credible than 2700 years of documentation.
Btw, "Christianity" did not exist in the days of Isaiah. Jesus Christ would not appear for hundreds of years. Isaiah 53 speak to it.
Yes, I did, and I don't find it very compelling for the reason I gave.
It seems you missed my point about Isaiah being a "self-fulfilling" prophecy. To put the question another way: Is there any source in the Bible that claims that Jesus was whipped for our iniquities that cannot be traced back to Isaiah? I imagine Paul wrote of it in one of his letters that is now in the Bible but if so and he was referring back to Isaiah, then that would not count as Paul could be said to be retrofitting the prophecy to create a new piece of Christian doctrine. In which case, it is not fulfilled prophecy at all.
Prophecies about historic events are one thing. But prophecies that find their fulfillment in the form of developed Christian doctrine are quite another and can easily be the *direct* result of the prophecy itself rather than something that came to pass independently.
The speaker at the end argues that a skeptic is choosing to rely on his own judgment about the Bible instead of the Bible's judgment about the Bible. But anyone who chooses to believe the Bible is still relying on his own judgment that the Bible is the WoG, is he not?
It is not possible for any man to disable his own sense of judgment in what he believes, whether Christian or not, or whether he believes the Bible is the WoG or not.
