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U.S. Constitution
See other U.S. Constitution Articles

Title: Here’s How The Supreme Court Already Repealed The Second Amendment
Source: The Federalist
URL Source: http://thefederalist.com/2018/05/09 ... ady-repealed-second-amendment/
Published: May 9, 2018
Author: Mark Overstreet
Post Date: 2018-05-09 11:31:39 by Deckard
Keywords: None
Views: 56170
Comments: 421

The Supreme Court effectively repealed the Second Amendment in District of Columbia v. Heller by restricting the amendment to common arms.

In March, retired Supreme Court justice John Paul Stevens called for repealing the Second Amendment, implicitly admitting that it does what, in his dissent in District of Columbia v. Heller (2008), he pretended it does not: prohibit laws infringing the right to keep and bear arms.

Why Stevens called for repeal and dissented in Heller is a mystery, however. The Second Amendment was repealed, in effect, by Heller’s majority opinion. The opinion went beyond questions raised in the case and laid out a rationale by which Congress, states, and courts could ban the private possession of many offensive and defensive arms today and all such arms of the future.

Heller asked the court to decide whether Washington DC’s bans on handguns, having a loaded firearm at home, and carrying a firearm at home without a permit violated the Second Amendment. Although on imperfect grounds, the court correctly ruled that the first two bans were unconstitutional. It also said if DC required a permit to carry a gun at home, it had to issue permits to qualified applicants. But, the court added, “[w]e may as well consider at this point . . . what types of weapons [the Court’s decision in U.S. v. Miller (1939)] permits.”

The Court Turned Stare Decisis On Its Head

Miller asked whether the National Firearms Act of 1934 violated the Second Amendment by requiring that a short-barreled shotgun be registered with the federal government. Oddly, before the court heard the case, one defendant died and the other disappeared, so their lawyer didn’t go to Washington to present evidence on their behalf.

The court thus concluded, “[i]n the absence of any evidence tending to show that possession and use of a [short-barreled shotgun] at this time has some reasonable relationship to the preservation or efficiency of a well regulated militia, we cannot say that the Second Amendment guarantees the right to keep and bear such an instrument. Certainly it is not within judicial notice that this weapon is any part of the ordinary military equipment or that its use could contribute to the common defense” (emphasis added).

For the right to “ordinary military equipment” and other arms that “could contribute to the common defense,” the court cited the decision of the Tennessee Supreme Court in Aymette v. State (1840), that “the arms, the right to keep which is secured [by Tennessee’s constitution] are such as are usually employed in civilized warfare, and that constitute the ordinary military equipment. If the citizens have these arms in their hands, they are prepared in the best possible manner to repel any encroachments upon their rights by those in authority.”

Heller said, “We think that Miller’s ‘ordinary military equipment’ language must be read in tandem with what comes after: ‘[O]rdinarily when called for [militia] service [able-bodied] men were expected to appear bearing arms supplied by themselves and of the kind in common use at the time.’”

However, that mischaracterizes Miller. The arms to which Miller said people have the right are those that have a “relationship to a well regulated militia.” “Ordinary military equipment” is the first example of arms the court said have that relationship, and “what comes after” is a second example: other arms that “could contribute to the common defense.” It was three paragraphs later that the court stated the obvious: people commonly possessed “common” arms.

Moreover, Heller didn’t read Miller “in tandem.” It gave weight only to Miller’s comment about “common” arms, while rejecting Miller’s and Aymette’s endorsement of the right to arms relating to militia purposes, “ordinary military equipment,” and other arms that “could contribute to the common defense.”

Why ‘Common’ Can’t Be the Standard for Owning Arms

Heller’s mischaracterization of Miller is the first reason why “common” cannot be the standard for arms to which people have the right. “Common” is also vulnerable to deliberate misinterpretation. For example, while the percentage of gun owners who own an AR-15 is about the same as the percentage of drivers who own a Mercedes, judges who oppose the right to arms would likely rule that only Mercedeses are “common.”

A second reason “common” cannot be the standard was noted by Justice Stephen Breyer in his dissent in Heller. He explained, “[T]he majority determines what regulations are permissible by looking to see what existing regulations permit. There is no basis for believing that the Framers intended such circular reasoning.”

Breyer had in mind the majority’s argument that fully automatic rifles, common in the military, could be banned because they aren’t common among private individuals. The circularity is that they aren’t common among private individuals because they have been prohibitively taxed since 1934, banned in about half the states for almost as long, prohibited from importation since 1968, and banned from domestic manufacture since 1986.

A third reason is that the U.S. Framers didn’t limit the right to “common” arms. For example, cannons, though not as common as handheld arms, weren’t excluded from the Second Amendment. In protecting the right to arms for defense against tyranny, the Framers intended for the people to win. Several quotations from them illustrate the point.

James Madison: “Let a regular army . . . be at the devotion of the federal government. . . . [T]he State governments, with the people on their side, would be able to repel the danger.”

Alexander Hamilton: “[The] army cannot be formidable to the liberties of the people while there is a large body of citizens, little, if at all, inferior to them in discipline and the use of arms, who stand ready to defend their own rights and those of their fellow-citizens.”

Richard Henry Lee: “To preserve liberty it is essential that the whole body of people always possess arms.”

Tench Coxe: “As the military . . . might pervert their power to the injury of their fellow citizens, the people are confirmed by the [Second Amendment] in their right to keep and bear their private arms.”

Noah Webster: “[T]he whole body of the people are armed, and constitute a force superior to any band of regular troops that can be, on any pretense, raised in the United States.”

You Can’t Protect Freedom With a Slingshot

A fourth, and the most important, reason was pointed out, but rejected by Heller’s majority opinion, written by the late Justice Antonin Scalia, an originalist from whom we might have expected faithfulness to the Framers’ intent. Referring to fully-automatic rifles, Scalia wrote:

It may be objected that if weapons that are most useful in military service . . . may be banned, then the Second Amendment right is completely detached from the [amendment’s] prefatory clause. . . . But the fact that modern developments have limited the degree of fit between the prefatory clause and the protected right cannot change our interpretation of the right.

Although some laud Heller for recognizing an individual right to some arms, its false standard allows Congress and the states to ban arms they and the courts claim are not “common” or that are useful “in military service.” As Breyer put it, “On the majority’s reasoning, if tomorrow someone invents a particularly useful, highly dangerous self-defense weapon, Congress and the States had better ban it immediately, for once it becomes popular Congress will no longer possess the authority to do so.”

Breyer was mocking his colleagues, but “tomorrow” is important because firearms are near the end of their 500-year era of usefulness for the military purpose the Framers intended. Notwithstanding gun-control supporters’ complaints about the supposed new-fangledness of this or that firearm or firearm accessory, firearms are glorified slingshots.

Three thousand years ago, David slew Goliath with a rock ballistically comparable to a .45 caliber pistol bullet. Gunpowder propels a bullet more predictably than a whirling leather thong, but bullets, like rocks, are inert projectiles.

Sometime this century, the government will be equipped with offensive and defensive handheld arms and even more futuristic arms that will render firearms as obsolete for defense against tyranny as bows and arrows are today. While our troops should be equipped with the best equipment possible when fighting America’s enemies, it requires little imagination to envision how extraordinary technologies, such as those developed by the Pentagon’s Defense Advanced Research Projects Agency, could be misused against the American people.

Of course, regardless of Heller and whether the Second Amendment is repealed, Americans have the right to keep and bear arms, including for defense against tyranny. As a wiser Supreme Court recognized in U.S. v. Cruikshank (1876), the right, which existed before the Constitution, is “not a right granted by the Constitution. Neither is it in any manner dependent upon that instrument for its existence.”

But rights are a concept. Laws that are enforced have tangible effect. In early April, U.S. District Court judge William Young ruled that Heller’s endorsement of restrictions on fully automatic firearms permits Massachusetts to ban semi-automatic firearms and ammunition magazines that many firearms use. Other courts have upheld similar bans.

If Americans allow their rights to be choked in this manner, they could find themselves no longer in control of government, but rather at its mercy.

Mark Overstreet is a firearm instructor and author in central Texas. He retired in 2016 as the senior research coordinator of the National Rifle Association’s Institute for Legislative Action, after 25 years with the organization. His views do not necessarily reflect those of the NRA.

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#97. To: misterwhite (#89)

"The RKBA is not a restriction on the federal government to leave the state militias (and their weapons) alone. What sort of right would that be?"

That would be the right of a state to form and maintain a well-regulated militia consisting of armed citizens.

Perhaps you missed it, but over a century ago the state militias were changed by Federal law into the National Guard.

Where did you find the constitutional right of a State to form and maintain a militia?

The Constitution says Congress shall have the power,

To provide for organizing, arming, and disciplining, the militia, and for governing such part of them as may be employed in the service of the United States, reserving to the states respectively, the appointment of the officers, and the authority of training the militia according to the discipline prescribed by Congress;

- - - - - - - - - -

"There are no more State militias. There is the National Guard."

21 states have State Defense Forces in addition to the National Guard. If the other 29 wish to have them, the second amendment protects their right to organize them.

The militia, resurrected, they ain't.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/State_defense_force

State defense forces (SDF; also known as state military, state guards, or state military reserves) in the United States are military units that operate under the sole authority of a state government. State defense forces are authorized by state and federal law and are under the command of the governor of each state.

State defense forces are distinct from their state's National Guard in that they cannot become federal entities. All state National Guard personnel (to include the National Guard of the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico and the territories of Guam and the Virgin Islands) can be federalized under the National Defense Act Amendments of 1933 with the creation of the National Guard of the United States. This provides the basis for integrating units and personnel of the Army National Guard into the U.S. Army and, since 1947, units and personnel of the Air National Guard into the U.S. Air Force.

The federal government recognizes state defense forces, as per the Compact Clause of the U.S. Constitution, under 32 U.S.C. § 109 which provides that state defense forces as a whole may not be called, ordered, or drafted into the armed forces of the United States, thus preserving their separation from the National Guard. However, under the same law, individual members serving in the state defense force are not exempt from service in the armed forces (i.e., they are not excluded from the draft). Under 32 USC § 109(e), "A person may not become a member of a defense force ... if he is a member of a reserve component of the armed forces."

[...]

Other problems cited by the Inspector General's office were a lack of standardization in training and physical fitness, raising questions as to the ability of SDFs to work alongside their National Guard counterparts, and a lack of coordination with and support from the Department of Defense. During a survey conducted by the Inspector General of SDF commanders and adjutant generals, 18 of 19 considered their SDFs to be part of the organized militia and subject to the Code of Military Justice, 14 of 18 considered the members of SDFs to be "soldiers", 14 of 18 considered SDF personnel to be "lawful belligerents" under the rules of war, and only 4 of 19 authorized their personnel to conduct firearms training. Almost all of the missions reported to the IG's office were non-military in nature, including small-scale search and rescue, disaster management, and other unarmed, homeland security related-tasks.

[...]

Some state defense forces have minimal enlistment requirements, permitting virtually any citizen under a prescribed age (usually 66) to join, even if they have no previous military experience, or don't meet conventional military physical standards (California, for instance, requires no physical fitness test prior to entry and has weight/height standards significantly more relaxed than the U.S. military).

Many state defense forces allow enlistment "at will" and personnel are under no termed service obligation, unlike most conventional military forces, meaning they can simply quit at any time without facing charges of desertion or Absence Without Leave.

Training standards vary widely, but usually require 15 days of annual drill, compared to the absolute minimum of 38 days (if not more) required of most federal military reserve forces. Unlike the U.S. military, there is generally only a limited period of basic training, often as few as four days for persons with no prior military experience, significantly less than the ten weeks of basic training required, for instance, by the United States Army.

[...]

Weapons qualification and training is provided in some SDFs. However, most SDFs do not require weapons proficiency. A 2006 report by the U.S. Freedom Foundation, an organization affiliated with the State Guard Association of the United States, recommended minimum standards for state defense forces, including weapons training, but the report has been largely ignored. Some SDFs have laws that in the event of deployment by order of the state legislature and/or governor, they will become armed.

The defense forces are created pursuant to 32 U.S.C. 109. They are subject to being drafted into the U.S. armed forces.

https://law.justia.com/codes/us/2016/title-32/chapter-1/sec.-109/

2016 US Code
Title 32 - National Guard
Chapter 1 - Organization
Sec. 109 - Maintenance of other troops

(a) In time of peace, a State, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the District of Columbia, Guam, or the Virgin Islands may maintain no troops other than those of its National Guard and defense forces authorized by subsection (c).

(b) Nothing in this title limits the right of a State, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the District of Columbia, Guam, or the Virgin Islands to use its National Guard or its defense forces authorized by subsection (c) within its borders in time of peace, or prevents it from organizing and maintaining police or constabulary.

(c) In addition to its National Guard, if any, a State, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the District of Columbia, Guam, or the Virgin Islands may, as provided by its laws, organize and maintain defense forces. A defense force established under this section may be used within the jurisdiction concerned, as its chief executive (or commanding general in the case of the District of Columbia) considers necessary, but it may not be called, ordered, or drafted into the armed forces.

(d) A member of a defense force established under subsection (c) is not, because of that membership, exempt from service in the armed forces, nor is he entitled to pay, allowances, subsistence, transportation, or medical care or treatment, from funds of the United States.

(e) A person may not become a member of a defense force established under subsection (c) if he is a member of a reserve component of the armed forces.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Militia_(United_States)

Today, as defined by the Militia Act of 1903, the term "militia" is primarily used to describe two groups within the United States:

Organized militia – consisting of State militia forces; notably, the National Guard and Naval Militia. (Note: the National Guard is not to be confused with the National Guard of the United States.)

Unorganized militia – composing the Reserve Militia: every able-bodied man of at least 17 and under 45 years of age, not a member of the National Guard or Naval Militia.

The state defense forces do not meet the definition of the organized or unorganized militia.

You may stop making believe that they are the militia, resurrected.

nolu chan  posted on  2018-05-19   1:46:19 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#98. To: misterwhite (#90)

"The District’s argument, on the other hand, asks us to read “the people” to mean some subset of individuals"

They were. They were citizens with full rights -- to own property, run for office, vote, bear arms in the militia. For example, Article I, Section 2 says "the people" vote for House members. Not "the citizens" vote for House members.

When used in a constitutional sense, the citizens and the people are one and the same. This reduces your statement to gibberish.

People ... In a more restricted sense, and as generally used in constitutional law, the entire body of those citizens of a state or nation who are invested with the political power for political purposes.

Black's Law Dictionary, 6th Ed.

nolu chan  posted on  2018-05-19   1:48:47 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#99. To: misterwhite (#87)

Look at how well that worked in Illinois. Quilici v. Village of Morton Grove, 695 F.2d 261 (7th Cir. 1982), cert. denied, 464 U.S. 863 (1983).

If that's what the citizens of Morton Grove wanted, who the fuck are you to tell them how to live? Who died and made you King?

You died of self-inflicted wounds.

You openly advocate for municipalities having the power to take away your claimed gun rights, and your guns. Talk about a surrender monkey.

Hey hey, ho ho,
Whitey's rights have got to go!

nolu chan  posted on  2018-05-19   1:54:35 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#100. To: nolu chan (#99)

"You openly advocate for municipalities having the power to take away your claimed gun rights, and your guns."

Only if the state constitution allows it and the people want it. Are you saying that people don't have the right to self-governance because you, nolu chan, disagree with the decisions they're making?

Is your way the better way?

misterwhite  posted on  2018-05-19   8:59:03 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#101. To: nolu chan (#94)

The District of Columbia is not a state. It is a Federal district. There was no need for incorporation for the 2nd amendment to apply to the District of Columbia.

Which is the main problem with the Heller decision. Had, say, Ohio banned handguns in the home for self-defense, the ruling would have been different because the court would have referred to Ohio's state constitution.

So the Heller court felt compelled to twist and distort the second amendment to make it applicable to DC residents. Which it is not.

misterwhite  posted on  2018-05-19   9:14:59 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#102. To: nolu chan (#95)

The Massachusetts case came after the Heller decision, so you can expect weird, convoluted second amendment rulings from here on out.

The Massachusetts Supreme Court was correct -- the second amendment does not protect stun guns or sawed-off shotguns or zip guns or any other weapon not suitable for a miliria. That's not to say citizens can't have them if their state constitution protects them. Just that they're not protected by the second amendment.

Now, this case proves the point I've been making since Heller was decided. Five justices on the The U.S. Supreme Court now get to define the word "arms" in the second amendment for everyone.

Not the people. Not the city. Not the state. Five unelected, appointed-for-life Federal judges.

You bring up the Massachusetts ruling like it's a good thing because the U.S. Supreme Court forced Massachusetts to allow stun guns. The citizens of Massachusetts don't want civilians to have stun guns. Tough shit, citizens.

BUT what happens when some future, liberal U.S. Supreme Court defines arms as not including "assault rifles" -- the very weapons needed for protection from an out-of-control government? Still a good idea when the ruling goes against you?

misterwhite  posted on  2018-05-19   9:40:03 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#103. To: nolu chan (#96)

The state defense forces do not meet the definition of the organized or unorganized militia.

If State Defense Forces don't meet the definition of a modern day state militia, then I don't know what does. Next you'll be telling me that an AR-15 doesn't meet the definition of "arms" because it's not a muzzle-loader.

(I will not be surprised when the U.S. Supreme Court defines it that way.)

misterwhite  posted on  2018-05-19   9:55:14 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#104. To: nolu chan (#97)

"Where did you find the constitutional right of a State to form and maintain a militia?"

I would think you would know, being an expert in common law. The authority comes from posse comitatus and pre-dates the U.S. Constitution.

The second amendment says the Federal Government can't infringe on this common law.

misterwhite  posted on  2018-05-19   10:08:23 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#105. To: nolu chan (#98)

When used in a constitutional sense, the citizens and the people are one and the same.

Not when the U.S. Constitution was written. And if we're looking for the meaning of the second amendment, that's what you go on.

"People ... In a more restricted sense, and as generally used in constitutional law, the entire body of those citizens of a state or nation who are invested with the political power for political purposes."

First of all, the term is "the people", not "people", not "persons", not "individuals, not "citizens". Each one had a different meaning in the U.S. Constitution.

Second, were your "people" -- the the the entire body of those citizens -- allowed to vote? Children weren't. Women weren't. Non-property owners weren't. Could those groups run for office? (No.)

So how can you possibly include them with those "who are invested with the political power for political purposes"?

misterwhite  posted on  2018-05-19   10:22:20 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#106. To: misterwhite, surrender monkey... (#100)

nolu chan ------ "You openly advocate for municipalities having the power to take away your claimed gun rights, and your guns. Talk about a surrender monkey".

Misterwrong ------ Only if the state constitution allows it and the people want it. Are you saying that people don't have the right to self-governance because you, nolu chan, disagree with the decisions they're making?

State constitutions or State/local 'laws' cannot infringe on 2nd amendment rights, -- (see the Supremacy Clause),....

tpaine  posted on  2018-05-19   11:31:50 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#107. To: misterwhite (#100)

"You openly advocate for municipalities having the power to take away your claimed gun rights, and your guns."

Only if the state constitution allows it and the people want it. Are you saying that people don't have the right to self-governance because you, nolu chan, disagree with the decisions they're making?

The Federal Constitution prohibits infringing upon the right of the people to keep and bear arms.

The people reserved the right to themselves and neither the Federal government, nor a lawless, usurping State government has the lawful power to infringe upon this right of the people.

This is true regardless of your mindless blatherings, or my astute observations of the actual law and current U.S. Supreme Court precedent.

nolu chan  posted on  2018-05-22   1:02:39 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#108. To: misterwhite (#101)

The District of Columbia is not a state. It is a Federal district. There was no need for incorporation for the 2nd amendment to apply to the District of Columbia.

Which is the main problem with the Heller decision. Had, say, Ohio banned handguns in the home for self-defense, the ruling would have been different because the court would have referred to Ohio's state constitution.

So the Heller court felt compelled to twist and distort the second amendment to make it applicable to DC residents. Which it is not.

Once again, you do not know what the hell you are talking about and just blather.

Heller only applied to the District of Columbia, not to the States.

McDonald took up the issue regarding thd States and decided that the 2nd Amendment had been incorporated into the 14th Amendment and was fully applicable to all the States.

Heller did not have to twist or distort anything to make it applicable to the District. It is a Federal district, under the control of the U.S. Congress. Congress has the power "to to exercise exclusive Legislation in all Cases whatsoever, over such District...." Art. 1, Sec. 8, Cl. 17. The 2nd Amendment automatically applied to the Federal district.

nolu chan  posted on  2018-05-22   1:03:19 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#109. To: misterwhite (#102)

The Massachusetts case came after the Heller decision, so you can expect weird, convoluted second amendment rulings from here on out.

The Massachusetts case followed the precedent in Heller. Caetano v. Massachusetts was a UNANIMOUS decision of the U.S. Supreme Court.

If you do not like the legally binding precedents of the U..S. Supreme Court, send them a sternly worded letter giving them the benefit of your wisdom.

Five justices on the The U.S. Supreme Court now get to define the word "arms" in the second amendment for everyone.

Yes, it has not changed. The U.S. Supreme Court is empowered by the people to issue a legally binding definition. You are not.

nolu chan  posted on  2018-05-22   1:04:16 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#110. To: misterwhite (#103)

The state defense forces do not meet the definition of the organized or unorganized militia.

If State Defense Forces don't meet the definition of a modern day state militia, then I don't know what does.

Finally, you made a statement that appears to be absolutely true.

nolu chan  posted on  2018-05-22   1:04:53 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#111. To: misterwhite (#104)

"Where did you find the constitutional right of a State to form and maintain a militia?"

I would think you would know, being an expert in common law. The authority comes from posse comitatus and pre-dates the U.S. Constitution.

The second amendment says the Federal Government can't infringe on this common law.

You're blowing it out of your ass.

https://www.law.cornell.edu/constitution/articlei#section8

Article 1, Section 8:

The Congress shall have power ... To provide for calling forth the militia to execute the laws of the union, suppress insurrections and repel invasions;

To provide for organizing, arming, and disciplining, the militia, and for governing such part of them as may be employed in the service of the United States, reserving to the states respectively, the appointment of the officers, and the authority of training the militia according to the discipline prescribed by Congress;

For your cited State Defense Forces, which may be comprised of fat 65-year old men with no military experience, they are authorized by Federal statute.

https://law.justia.com/codes/us/2016/title-32/chapter-1/sec.-109/

2016 US Code
Title 32 - National Guard
Chapter 1 - Organization
Sec. 109 - Maintenance of other troops

32 U.S.C. § 109 (2016)

(a) In time of peace, a State, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the District of Columbia, Guam, or the Virgin Islands may maintain no troops other than those of its National Guard and defense forces authorized by subsection (c).

(b) Nothing in this title limits the right of a State, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the District of Columbia, Guam, or the Virgin Islands to use its National Guard or its defense forces authorized by subsection (c) within its borders in time of peace, or prevents it from organizing and maintaining police or constabulary.

(c) In addition to its National Guard, if any, a State, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the District of Columbia, Guam, or the Virgin Islands may, as provided by its laws, organize and maintain defense forces. A defense force established under this section may be used within the jurisdiction concerned, as its chief executive (or commanding general in the case of the District of Columbia) considers necessary, but it may not be called, ordered, or drafted into the armed forces.

(d) A member of a defense force established under subsection (c) is not, because of that membership, exempt from service in the armed forces, nor is he entitled to pay, allowances, subsistence, transportation, or medical care or treatment, from funds of the United States.

(e) A person may not become a member of a defense force established under subsection (c) if he is a member of a reserve component of the armed forces. Source Credit

(Aug. 10, 1956, ch. 1041, 70A Stat. 600; Pub. L. 85–861, §2(2), Sept. 2, 1958, 72 Stat. 1542; Pub. L. 100–456, div. A, title XII, §1234(b)(1), Sept. 29, 1988, 102 Stat. 2059; Pub. L. 109–163, div. A, title X, §1057(b)(3), Jan. 6, 2006, 119 Stat. 3441; Pub. L. 111–383, div. A, title X, §1075(h)(4)(B), Jan. 7, 2011, 124 Stat. 4377.)

The Second Amendment says The Federal Government shall not infringe a RIGHT OF THE PEOPLE. By incorporation into the 14th Amendment, the restriction applies equally to the several States.

Common law. As distinguished from statutory law created by the enactment of legislatures, the common law comprises the body of those principles and rules of action, relating to the government and security of persons and property, which derive their authority solely from usages and customs of immemorial antiquity, or from the judgments and decrees of the courts recognizing, affirming, and enforcing such usages and customs; and, in this sense, particularly the ancient unwritten law of England. In general, it is a body of law that develops and derives through judicial decisions, as distinguished from legislative enactments. The "common law" is all the statutory and case law background of England and the American colonies before the American revolution.

Black's Law Dictionary 6th Ed.

Take your childish argument to your nearest pre-revolutionary colonial court.

There have never been common law courts in the United States.

nolu chan  posted on  2018-05-22   1:06:40 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#112. To: misterwhite (#105)

When used in a constitutional sense, the citizens and the people are one and the same.

Not when the U.S. Constitution was written.

Again, you are full of shit.

That is the usage of the Framers. That is why it is applicable in constitutional usage.

As we said in United States v. Verdugo-Urquidez, 494 U. S. 259, 265 (1990):

“ ‘[T]he people’ seems to have been a term of art employed in select parts of the Constitution. . . . [Its uses] sugges[t] that ‘the people’ protected by the Fourth Amendment, and by the First and Second Amendments, and to whom rights and powers are reserved in the Ninth and Tenth Amendments, refers to a class of persons who are part of a national community or who have otherwise developed sufficient connection with this country to be considered part of that community.”

Heller, 554 U.S. 570, 590 (2008)

nolu chan  posted on  2018-05-22   1:07:14 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#113. To: nolu chan (#112) (Edited)

In 1990 and in 2008, "the people" referred to a different class of citizens.

But back when the U.S. Constitution and the second amendment were written, "the people" referred only to citizens with full rights -- the right to vote, to own property, to run for office. Only they were "part of a national community or who have otherwise developed sufficient connection with this country to be considered part of that community.”

So when Article 1, Section 2 or the second amendment refers to "the people", that's who they're talking about. Not everyone. Not back then.

misterwhite  posted on  2018-05-22   9:49:24 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#114. To: nolu chan (#107)

The Federal Constitution prohibits infringing upon the right of the people to keep and bear arms.

It does now, but only those "arms" defined as "arms" by the U.S. Supreme Court. And "keep" as defined by the U.S. Supreme Court. And "bear" as defined by the U.S. Supreme Court.

misterwhite  posted on  2018-05-22   10:35:21 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#115. To: nolu chan (#108)

Heller only applied to the District of Columbia, not to the States.

And that's where it should have stayed.

"Heller did not have to twist or distort anything to make it applicable to the District."

Sure it did. It applied the second amendment protection of a militia to an individual ... because D.C. residents weren't protected by their own constitution.

misterwhite  posted on  2018-05-22   10:39:24 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#116. To: nolu chan (#109)

If you do not like the legally binding precedents of the U..S. Supreme Court,

Do you? You certainly don't like the precedents of Cruikshank, Presser or Miller. Those weren't legally binding precedents. They were mere suggestions, right?

"The U.S. Supreme Court is empowered by the people to issue a legally binding definition."

Which, in second amendment cases, would only bind the federal government. But that's now changed with Heller and McDonald. Now the court decides for everyone.

misterwhite  posted on  2018-05-22   10:45:17 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#117. To: nolu chan (#111)

There have never been common law courts in the United States.

Then stop referencing common law in your posts. You can't have it both ways.

misterwhite  posted on  2018-05-22   10:48:07 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#118. To: misterwhite (#113)

In 1990 and in 2008, "the people" referred to a different class of citizens.

But back when the U.S. Constitution and the second amendment were written, "the people" referred only to citizens with full rights -- the right to vote, to own property, to run for office. Only they were "part of a national community or who have otherwise developed sufficient connection with this country to be considered part of that community.”

So when Article 1, Section 2 or the second amendment refers to "the people", that's who they're talking about. Not everyone. Not back then.

Quit just making shit up. The Constitution was not written in 1990 or 2008.

Heller and McDonald interpreted the Constitution according to original intent at the time of the writing.

Scalia [2008] and Alito [2010] were not applying your bastardized meaning of "the people."

nolu chan  posted on  2018-05-22   16:59:06 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#119. To: misterwhite (#114)

The Federal Constitution prohibits infringing upon the right of the people to keep and bear arms.

It does now, but only those "arms" defined as "arms" by the U.S. Supreme Court. And "keep" as defined by the U.S. Supreme Court. And "bear" as defined by the U.S. Supreme Court.

Yes, the Constitution only protects the right, as that right is defined by the U.S. Supreme Court. That is the system we have, where the U.S. Supreme Court is the ultimate arbiter of what the law is.

nolu chan  posted on  2018-05-22   16:59:49 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#120. To: misterwhite (#115)

Heller only applied to the District of Columbia, not to the States.

And that's where it should have stayed.

It didn't. McDonald v City of Chicago,

"Heller did not have to twist or distort anything to make it applicable to the District."

Sure it did. It applied the second amendment protection of a militia to an individual ... because D.C. residents weren't protected by their own constitution.

You are out of your damn mind if you think the Federal Constitution did not apply directly to the Federal District of Columbia.

You are equally out of your mind if you think the Federal District of Columbia is a sovereign state. D.C. has no sovereignty to exercise.

nolu chan  posted on  2018-05-22   17:06:52 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#121. To: misterwhite (#117)

There have never been common law courts in the United States.

Then stop referencing common law in your posts. You can't have it both ways.

Once again, your comment is asiten.

The language of the Constitution and of many acts of Congress could not be understood without reference to the common law.

Moore v. United States, 91 U.S. 270, 274 (1875)

The Founders and Framers lived as colonials under English common law. The used the terminology of the common law when writing the Constitution.

[misterwhite #111] The second amendment says the Federal Government can't infringe on this common law.

The Constitution is the Supreme Law of the United States.

It cannot be properly understood without reference to the common law.

U.S. Constitution, Article 6:

This Constitution, and the laws of the United States which shall be made in pursuance thereof; and all treaties made, or which shall be made, under the authority of the United States, shall be the supreme law of the land; and the judges in every state shall be bound thereby, anything in the Constitution or laws of any State to the contrary notwithstanding.

The Constitution is the Supreme Law. It is legally IMPOSSIBLE for the Constitution to infringe upon common law, or any other law. No higher or equal law is recognized.

All thirteen original states adopted the common law, such as did not conflict with the Constitution, either in their constitution or by statute.

Common law, inconsistent with applicable written law, always falls to the written law.

While the Framers used legal terminology derived from English common law when writing the Constitution, that did not make English common law the Supreme Law of the United States.

nolu chan  posted on  2018-05-22   17:11:41 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#122. To: misterwhite (#116)

If you do not like the legally binding precedents of the U..S. Supreme Court,

Do you? You certainly don't like the precedents of Cruikshank, Presser or Miller. Those weren't legally binding precedents. They were mere suggestions, right?

You bullshittingly cited them as current precedent for all nature of silly bullshit.

Current precedent of Heller (2008) and McDonald 2010 hold that the right to keep and bear arms is an individual right, that the 2nd Amendment was incorporated into the 14th Amendment, and that the 2nd Amendment applies fully to the states.

Regarding that specific subject matter, your dredged up bullshit is not even a suggestion. Heller and McDonald are the law of the land.

"The U.S. Supreme Court is empowered by the people to issue a legally binding definition."

Which, in second amendment cases, would only bind the federal government. But that's now changed with Heller and McDonald. Now the court decides for everyone.

Almost the entirety of the Bill of Rights has been incorporated against the states. The 2nd Amendment is no exception.

- - - - - - - - - -

Heller [2008] and McDonald [2010]

The 2nd Amendment law that is.

The Second Amendment right to keep and bear arms is an individual right. It has been oncorporated into the 14th Amendment and applies fully to the States. The States, as well as the Federal government, are restrained from infringing upon the right to keep and bear arms.

- - - - - - - - - -

https://www.scribd.com/document/379582277/Parker-v-District-of-Columbia-478-F3d-372-DC-Cir-2007

- - - - - - - - - -

https://www.scribd.com/document/379582321/District-of-Columbia-v-Heller-554-US-570-2008

- - - - - - - - - -

https://www.scribd.com/document/379582348/McDonald-v-Chicago-561-US-742-2010

- - - - - - - - - -

https://www.scribd.com/document/379658141/Caetano-v-Massachusetts-14-10078-577-US-2016-Per-Curiam

- - - - - - - - - -

Cruickshank [1875], Presser [1886] and Miller [1939]

Non-precedent for those, such as misterwhite, who yearn for the good old days when the 2nd Amendment provided no protection from states infringing the individual right to keep and bear arms.

- - - - - - - - - -

https://www.scribd.com/document/379702589/united-states-v-cruickshank-92-us-542-1875

- - - - - - - - - -

https://www.scribd.com/document/379702620/Presser-v-Illinois-116-US-252-1886

- - - - - - - - - -

https://www.scribd.com/document/379702733/United-States-v-Miller-307-US-174-1939

- - - - - - - - - -

Quilici v. Morton Grove [1982]

An example of the river of shit that flowed from Cruickshank [1875], Presser [1886] and Miller [1939]

- - - - - - - - - -

https://www.scribd.com/document/379658174/Quilici-v-Morton-Grove-532-F-Supp-1169-ND-Ill-1981

- - - - - - - - - -

https://www.scribd.com/document/379658197/Quilici-v-Morton-Grove-695-F2d-261-7th-Cir-1982-Cert-Denied

- - - - - - - - - -

nolu chan  posted on  2018-05-22   17:18:58 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#123. To: nolu chan (#120)

"You are out of your damn mind if you think the Federal Constitution did not apply directly to the Federal District of Columbia."

Federal Constitution? Whatever.

I'm not referring to the U.S. Constitution. I'm referring to the second amendment which protects state militias. D.C. is not a state. It has no state militia.

So the U.S. Supreme Court twisted the second amendment saying it protected an individual right, and therefore Mr. Heller's right to keep a handgun in the home for self-defense was preserved.

Look. Let's say you're right -- the second amendment protects an individual right to keep and bear arms which are in common civilian use. What protects state militias and/or the National Guard? What's to prevent the Federal government from disbanding the National Guard and organizing a standing Federal military?

misterwhite  posted on  2018-05-22   17:24:01 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#124. To: nolu chan (#122)

Current precedent of Heller (2008) and McDonald 2010

"In common law legal systems, a precedent is a rule established in a previous legal case that is binding on a court when deciding subsequent cases with similar issues or facts." (Wiki)

Cruikshank, Presser and Miller were precedents. They were ignored by the Heller court. The Heller court made up a whole new definition of the second amendment in order to protect Mr. Heller.

I say if the Heller court can ignore precedent, I can ignore Heller.

misterwhite  posted on  2018-05-22   17:34:24 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#125. To: misterwhite (#123)

I'm not referring to the U.S. Constitution. I'm referring to the second amendment which protects state militias. D.C. is not a state. It has no state militia.

Your continued militia argument is just horseshit.

I have patiently explained to you that the 2nd amendment right is an individual right, it has been incorporated into the 14th Amendment, and it applies to the District of Columbia (Heller) and to the States (McDonald).

That you do not personally approve of SCOTUS in Heller and McDonald changes nothing.

nolu chan  posted on  2018-05-23   0:42:22 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#126. To: misterwhite (#124)

I say if the Heller court can ignore precedent, I can ignore Heller.

Your argument that the Heller court lacked authority to issue its decision, due to some prior precedent, is just horseshit. I have already explained this to you.

The doctrine of following precedent is stare decisis. A precedential holding only binds lower courts in the same jurisdiction. No precedent can bind the U.S. Supreme Court as there is no higher court to issue such a precedent.

Under your lame, desperate grope, Roe v. Wade could never be overturned or reversed by the U.S. Supreme Court. It is notorious and blatantly obvious that the system does not work that way. In a new case, the U.S. Supreme Court can always revisit issues previously decided, and either uphold, overturn, or reverse a prior opinion. The Court can overturn Roe if it takes up a case and revisits the abortion issue.

nolu chan  posted on  2018-05-23   0:44:51 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#127. To: nolu chan (#126)

Under your lame, desperate grope, Roe v. Wade could never be overturned or reversed by the U.S. Supreme Court.

Roe v Wade was decided on a "right to privacy" found in a penumbra of an emanation. That decision can be overturned by a court finding that no such right exists or has ever existed.

misterwhite  posted on  2018-05-23   9:08:24 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#128. To: nolu chan (#125)

Second request. If you're right, then what protects state militias and/or the National Guard from federal infringement? What's to prevent the Federal government from disbanding the National Guard and organizing a standing Federal military?

misterwhite  posted on  2018-05-23   9:18:01 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#129. To: nolu chan (#122)

Quilici v. Morton Grove [1982]
An example of the river of shit that flowed from Cruickshank [1875], Presser [1886] and Miller [1939]

The decision was correct. Just because you don't like the decision doesn't make it unconstitutional.

A real river of shit was created by Heller. With the U.S. Supreme Court now in total control of defining "arms", "to keep" and "to bear" for everyone, we are totally screwed. Oh, we're ok now since conservatives control the court. And you're all shits and giggles because so far they've ruled your way.

Once liberals control the U.S. Supreme Court, you might as well turn in your guns. There will be nothing to protect you.

misterwhite  posted on  2018-05-23   9:28:53 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#130. To: misterwhite (#127)

Roe v Wade was decided on a "right to privacy" found in a penumbra of an emanation.

Roe was a precedent setting decision by a U.S. Supreme court majority. It enjoys the same precedent setting authority other SCOTUS precedents.

That decision can be overturned by a court finding that no such right exists or has ever existed.

I see. Your version of the law is flexible to the extent that only the precedents you do not like can be overturned or reversed.

When the SCOTUS acts to revisit an issue on the 2nd Amendment, that is beyond its authority, even though no precedent by SCOTUS or any other court can even be theoretically binding on SCOTUS.

Keep twisting yourself in knots.

nolu chan  posted on  2018-05-24   0:41:02 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#131. To: misterwhite (#129)

Quilici v. Morton Grove [1982]

The decision was correct. Just because you don't like the decision doesn't make it unconstitutional.

I did not say Quilici was unconstitutional. At the time it was issued by a majority of the U.S. Supreme Court, it was the law of the land. Just as when Plessy v. Ferguson was issued, separate but equal was the law of the land.

When a subsequent holding overrules the holding of a prior holding, the old precedent is dead, and the new precedent is the law of the land.

You are making a fool of yourself.

nolu chan  posted on  2018-05-24   0:42:10 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#132. To: misterwhite (#128)

Second request. If you're right, then what protects state militias and/or the National Guard from federal infringement? What's to prevent the Federal government from disbanding the National Guard and organizing a standing Federal military?

A second response. The 2nd Amendment protects the individual right to keep and bear arms. It has been incorporated into the 14th Amendment and applies to all the states.

The First Request and Response is repeated below at the end of this post. The actual dingbat request was,

[nolu chan #97] "Where did you find the constitutional right of a State to form and maintain a militia?"

[misterwhite #104] I would think you would know, being an expert in common law. The authority comes from posse comitatus and pre-dates the U.S. Constitution.

The second amendment says the Federal Government can't infringe on this common law.

You hilariously asserted that 2nd Amendment forbids Federal infringement on something or other in the common law regarding posse comitatus.

If that is what the 2nd Amendment says, quote that part of the 2nd amendment.

The nonsense at your #104 was answered at my #111.

https://law.justia.com/codes/us/2016/title-32/chapter-1/

United States Code, 2012 Edition, Supplement 4, Title 32 - NATIONAL GUARD

Sec. 101 - Definitions
Sec. 102 - General policy
Sec. 103 - Branches and organizations
Sec. 104 - Units: location; organization; command
Sec. 105 - Inspection
Sec. 106 - Annual appropriations
Sec. 107 - Availability of appropriations
Sec. 108 - Forfeiture of Federal benefits
Sec. 109 - Maintenance of other troops
Sec. 110 - Regulations
Sec. 111 - Suspension of certain provisions of this title
Sec. 112 - Drug interdiction and counter-drug activities
Sec. 113 - Federal financial assistance for support of additional duties assigned to the Army National Guard
Sec. 114 - Funeral honors functions at funerals for veterans
Sec. 115 - Funeral honors duty performed as a Federal function

https://www.scribd.com/document/380029027/32-Stat-775-1903-the-Dick-Act-The-Militia-Act-of-1903

- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -

[nolu chan #97] "Where did you find the constitutional right of a State to form and maintain a militia?"

[misterwhite #104] I would think you would know, being an expert in common law. The authority comes from posse comitatus and pre-dates the U.S. Constitution.

The second amendment says the Federal Government can't infringe on this common law.

The nonsense at your #104 was answered at my #111.

You're blowing it out of your ass.

https://www.law.cornell.edu/constitution/articlei#section8

Article 1, Section 8:

The Congress shall have power ... To provide for calling forth the militia to execute the laws of the union, suppress insurrections and repel invasions;

To provide for organizing, arming, and disciplining, the militia, and for governing such part of them as may be employed in the service of the United States, reserving to the states respectively, the appointment of the officers, and the authority of training the militia according to the discipline prescribed by Congress;

For your cited State Defense Forces, which may be comprised of fat 65-year old men with no military experience, they are authorized by Federal statute.

https://law.justia.com/codes/us/2016/title-32/chapter-1/sec.-109/

[nolu chan #97] "Where did you find the constitutional right of a State to form and maintain a militia?"

[misterwhite #104] I would think you would know, being an expert in common law. The authority comes from posse comitatus and pre-dates the U.S. Constitution.

The second amendment says the Federal Government can't infringe on this common law.

[nolu chan #111] You're blowing it out of your ass.

https://www.law.cornell.edu/constitution/articlei#section8

Article 1, Section 8:

The Congress shall have power ... To provide for calling forth the militia to execute the laws of the union, suppress insurrections and repel invasions;

To provide for organizing, arming, and disciplining, the militia, and for governing such part of them as may be employed in the service of the United States, reserving to the states respectively, the appointment of the officers, and the authority of training the militia according to the discipline prescribed by Congress;

For your cited State Defense Forces, which may be comprised of fat 65-year old men with no military experience, they are authorized by Federal statute.

https://law.justia.com/codes/us/2016/title-32/chapter-1/sec.-109/

2016 US Code
Title 32 - National Guard
Chapter 1 - Organization
Sec. 109 - Maintenance of other troops

32 U.S.C. § 109 (2016)

(a) In time of peace, a State, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the District of Columbia, Guam, or the Virgin Islands may maintain no troops other than those of its National Guard and defense forces authorized by subsection (c).

(b) Nothing in this title limits the right of a State, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the District of Columbia, Guam, or the Virgin Islands to use its National Guard or its defense forces authorized by subsection (c) within its borders in time of peace, or prevents it from organizing and maintaining police or constabulary.

(c) In addition to its National Guard, if any, a State, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the District of Columbia, Guam, or the Virgin Islands may, as provided by its laws, organize and maintain defense forces. A defense force established under this section may be used within the jurisdiction concerned, as its chief executive (or commanding general in the case of the District of Columbia) considers necessary, but it may not be called, ordered, or drafted into the armed forces.

(d) A member of a defense force established under subsection (c) is not, because of that membership, exempt from service in the armed forces, nor is he entitled to pay, allowances, subsistence, transportation, or medical care or treatment, from funds of the United States.

(e) A person may not become a member of a defense force established under subsection (c) if he is a member of a reserve component of the armed forces. Source Credit

(Aug. 10, 1956, ch. 1041, 70A Stat. 600; Pub. L. 85–861, §2(2), Sept. 2, 1958, 72 Stat. 1542; Pub. L. 100–456, div. A, title XII, §1234(b)(1), Sept. 29, 1988, 102 Stat. 2059; Pub. L. 109–163, div. A, title X, §1057(b)(3), Jan. 6, 2006, 119 Stat. 3441; Pub. L. 111–383, div. A, title X, §1075(h)(4)(B), Jan. 7, 2011, 124 Stat. 4377.)

The Second Amendment says The Federal Government shall not infringe a RIGHT OF THE PEOPLE. By incorporation into the 14th Amendment, the restriction applies equally to the several States.

Common law. As distinguished from statutory law created by the enactment of legislatures, the common law comprises the body of those principles and rules of action, relating to the government and security of persons and property, which derive their authority solely from usages and customs of immemorial antiquity, or from the judgments and decrees of the courts recognizing, affirming, and enforcing such usages and customs; and, in this sense, particularly the ancient unwritten law of England. In general, it is a body of law that develops and derives through judicial decisions, as distinguished from legislative enactments. The "common law" is all the statutory and case law background of England and the American colonies before the American revolution.

Black's Law Dictionary 6th Ed.

Take your childish argument to your nearest pre-revolutionary colonial court.

There have never been common law courts in the United States.

nolu chan  posted on  2018-05-24   0:43:30 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#133. To: nolu chan (#130)

It enjoys the same precedent setting authority other SCOTUS precedents.

If it enjoys the precedent setting authority of Cruikshank, Presser, or Heller, that ain't sayin' much, is it?

misterwhite  posted on  2018-05-24   9:07:39 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#134. To: nolu chan (#130)

Your version of the law is flexible to the extent that only the precedents you do not like can be overturned or reversed.

No. Only the "precedents" that are based on made up bullshit having nothing to do with the clear wording of the U.S. Constitution.

misterwhite  posted on  2018-05-24   9:10:47 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#135. To: nolu chan (#131)

When a subsequent holding overrules the holding of a prior holding, the old precedent is dead, and the new precedent is the law of the land.

Not much of a precedent or a holding, is it, when it can be overturned by a court that just makes shit up.

misterwhite  posted on  2018-05-24   9:13:06 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#136. To: misterwhite (#134)

No. Only the "precedents" that are based on made up bullshit having nothing to do with the clear wording of the U.S. Constitution.

I can agree with that. The constitution is made up of words that have fixed meanings. Case law is largely made up bullshit.

I respect the law and constitution. Not "case law or precedent". And of course I am right.

A K A Stone  posted on  2018-05-24   9:21:38 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  



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