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Bible Study
See other Bible Study Articles

Title: The Origins of the King James Bible
Source: Smithsonian
URL Source: http://www.smithsonianmag.com/smart ... -james-bible-180956949/?no-ist
Published: Oct 17, 2015
Author: Erin Blakemore
Post Date: 2015-10-17 05:19:05 by Willie Green
Keywords: None
Views: 23148
Comments: 83

A handwritten draft of the world's most famous bible has been discovered in England

When an archive yields an unexpected discovery, it's usually cause for celebration. But when that discovery involves the world's most famous bible, scholarly excitement mounts to ecstastic levels. The earliest known draft of the King James Bible has been unearthed at the University of Cambridge, writes Jennifer Schuessler for The New York Times, and it’s being lauded as a critical find for historians.

The draft was discovered by Jeffrey Alan Miller, an American scholar conduct in the Cambridge archives. It contains the handwriting of dozens of authors, dating from 1604 to 1608. That handwriting is a crucial find, Schuessler writes, because it reveals how they translated and assembled the text.

"There's a strong desire to see the King James Bible as a uniform object, and a belief that it's great because of its collaborative nature," Miller tells Schuessler. "It was incredibly collaborative, but it was done in a much more complicated, nuanced, and at times individualistic way than we've ever really had good evidence to believe."

Forty-seven translators and scholars produced the King James Bible, which was first published in 1611. The project dates back to 1604, when King James I decided a new version could help consolidate political power, writes NPR's Barbara Bradley Hagartay. A popular Puritan bible had downplayed the divine right of kings — greatly offending James — and James manipulated different Christian sects until they agreed to produce a different translation.

The result became an incredible, long-lasting success. The King James Bible has influenced language, literature and culture for more than 400 years. In the Times Literary Supplement, Miller writes that his discovery suggests that the text may be "far more a patchwork of individual translations — the product of individual translators and individual companies working in individual ways — than has ever been properly recognized." Perhaps there is always more to discover after all.

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Begin Trace Mode for Comment # 14.

#9. To: Willie Green (#0)

God translated the KJV as promised.

A K A Stone  posted on  2015-10-19   8:35:57 ET  Reply   Untrace   Trace   Private Reply  


#10. To: A K A Stone (#9) (Edited)

God translated the KJV as promised.

You're a KJV-Onlyist?

This is why I use the KJV for discussion purposes.

I've never heard of an NIV-Onlyist, or an ESV-Onlyist, but KJV-Onlyism, KJV- inspired-translationism, is a thing.

When you say "God translated the KJV", do you mean by that that the KJV-English is itself inspired, such that it, in the English, has the full authority of God behind it, that it is the "real" text of Scripture, in English, as inspired by God?

There are KJV-Onlyists who are "inspired translationists" who believe that the KJV itself, is a direct revelation of the Scripture in God-inspired English. That among the manuscripts, God chose the TRUE manuscript, and that God inspired the translators to write the English that perfectly says in English the true inspired textual meaning of God.

This is the strongest form of KJV-Onlyism, because it would mean that when one finds an ancient manuscript in Greek, one can compare that Greek manuscript to the English of the KJV and realize if that Greek manuscript is true Scripture or is a copy that was damaged in some uninspired way.

Pure, full-strength KJV-Onlyism is my favorite kind, because it means that all of the various manuscripts in various languages that preceded it, with all of the gaps and confusion, were completely settled by God, for God provided a new, complete, perfect, inspired set of Scriptures, in English, in the age of the printing press, to REPLACE the confusion from the welter of ancient sources and languages.

Inspired-KJVism means that one need not study Latin or Greek, or engage in any archaeology, to know PRECISELY what God intended Scripture to be, for he revealed the entirety of Scripture in English at the beginning of the 17th Century, in the age of the printing press.

So, to fully know God's inspired Scripture, one must learn English, for the best, the most accurate and the most complete revelation of Scripture occurred in English, in 1611, with the publication of the KJV.

The editorial choices of the KJV translators and publishers were all inspired by God, making the KJV 1611 version perfect - THE revealed word of God.

Presumably you would accept an updating of spelling as acceptable, but not punctuation, because punctuation adds or subtracts meaning, so God conveyed the perfect punctuation.

I do not believe KJV-Only Inspired-translationism myself, but I certainly prefer it as a basis for discussion, for it cuts through all of the fog and eliminates consultation of any other text. There was no standard dictionary of English in 1611, so a little bit of knowledge of archaic forms is necessary (thou vs. you vs. ye, for example, or "suffer the little children..."), but that's easily handled.

KJV-Onlyism has the virtue of reductionist clarity. It establishes a set of rules, and a limitative text. It takes Hebrew, Greek and Latin off the table: the English was directly inspired by God. It takes all discussions about ancient manuscripts off the table: the English was inspired by God, so therefore ancient manuscripts can be compared to the English of the KJV to determine whether or not the ancient manuscripts are accurate or in error.

It removes modern pedantism, because there was no dictionary in 1611, so the words mean what they meant in common usage then, not esoteric meanings that came later.

There are no footnotes, which means that nothing was added. But there was versification, which means that God established the versification as part of the inspired scripture. Moreover, there are names to the books, so the NAMES are also inspired - by calling a Gospel "Mark" in the KJV, God has revealed that Mark was the author. Therefore, there is no need to waste time debating who wrote it: God revealed that with the KJV. Likewise, the canon was definitively revealed by God with the 1611 translation: the revealed texts, plus the apocrypha.

Would you consider the original translators notes to be inspired also?

What is the limit of inspiration? Is it everything that is within the cover of the original publication, first printing?

I like that best of all, because now we have an authoritative set of texts, limited by direct divine inspiration, with specific words, punctuation and spelling.

How far does your KJV-Onlyism go? As far as you go, I am eager to go farther.

In its highest, best form, KJV-Onlyism gives us the only text certain to be complete and point perfect, right down to the period. The original printing of 1611 IS God's revealed word in the most perfect incarnation of KJV-Onlyism. And that means that all discussion shifts away from archaeology, manuscripts and translation to the literal words themselves, exactly as they appear on the page.

This approach appeals very much to my lawyer's mind, because it closes the canon and gives a definitive text. And that takes away everybody's wiggle room, just like with the Constitution.

Vicomte13  posted on  2015-10-19   9:29:35 ET  Reply   Untrace   Trace   Private Reply  


#13. To: Vicomte13 (#10)

In its highest, best form, KJV-Onlyism gives us the only text certain to be complete and point perfect, right down to the period.

You really are LF's premiere KJV-Onlyist.     : )

Tooconservative  posted on  2015-10-19   10:16:26 ET  Reply   Untrace   Trace   Private Reply  


#14. To: TooConservative (#13)

You really are LF's premiere KJV-Onlyist. : )

I respect KJV-Onlyists for their devotion to a principle.

I love the principle because it limits all religious discussion to one specific text as the sole source of authority. Obviously once things are limited to a single text, then the person with the strongest reading ability and best memory has the advantage. And that would be me.

Of course I don't really believe in Sola Scriptura. Literacy is not a requirement for salvation.

Still, as a tool for instruction and resolution of issues among literate, litigious moderns, there's nothing like a text. And KJV-Onlyism settles utterly the question of the Battle of the Texts, although it then opens up the problem of 17th Century upper-class British English versus 21st Century middle class American English.

Permit me an example: I know that what John actually wrote, translated into English, is this: 'This is the way that God loved the world: he gave his only begotten son...".

I know that the KJV says that too. "God so loved the word that he gave his only begotten son..." means just exactly that, in 17th Century English - he did it "just so".

But I also know that 20th and 21st Century English speakers misread this and think it says "God loved the world so much that he gave his only begotten son...", which is not what the Greek OR the KJV English really mean. I know that, but I also know that trying to use a translation that says "This is the way God loved the world: he gave his only begotten son..." would provoke howls of "Heresy!" from middle class American traditionalist Christians because the words are different from what they're used to, and so seem to be an attempt to "twist" Scripture. The real twisting has been done by the change of language and time and culture, but I know that the earnest, faithful, suspicious middle American will never accept that from a Catholic. He will smell sulfur.

I'm pleased, then, to stay with the KJV text, for two reasons: It actually says, in its 17trh Century idiom: "This is the way God loved the world...", so by accepting the 17th Century "God so loved the world..." language I am not compromising anything on my side - what I wrote in 21st Century American English is exactly what that 17th Century British English says. But I also know that Americans who have invested "THIS MUCH" theology into that "so" aren't going to accept any change of the language. So by accepting the KJV text I can compromise and leave them their language intact, avoiding an unnecessary conflict, while still being correct.

And then I can go find piles of Shakespeare and Marlowe and Bacon and others writing in that period to demonstrate that "so" means - "just so" - "in this way", and not "this much" - when written by a hand holding a pen in 1611.

That, then, turns out to be an edifying discussion, for Shakespeare and Marlowe and Bacon have been invoked as contemporary demonstrations (as there was no dictionary in 1611), and then my interlocutor can keep his precious traditional language while coming away with a different point of view.

KJV-Only Sola Scripturalism is a TOOL that makes a conversation possible between a Catholic and an evangelical Protestant. DOCTRINALLY he believes it, and I think it's nonsense, but I'm willing to use his text to avoid dispute.

That's why I like it. As TRUTH? No. But as a medium of communication between hostile brothers and sisters that need to reconcile, it's a good tool.

Incidentally, there's a Catholic form of KJV-Onlyism we might call "Vulgate- onlyism", and an Orthodox form of it we could call "LXX-Onlyism". And we should remember that the Massoretic Text tradition, which comes out the post- Christian revolution, post-Temple, Jewish "Council of Jamnia" is itself a "Hebrew-text-Onlyism" that stands directly opposed to LXX-Onlyism for the Old Testament.

Vicomte13  posted on  2015-10-19   11:46:54 ET  Reply   Untrace   Trace   Private Reply  


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